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Musings on Manslaughter....

Started by QuirkyDiana, April 30, 2010, 02:10:45 PM

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Q
April 30, 2010, 02:10:45 PM Last Edit: December 31, 1969, 06:00:00 PM by Guest

Murray either killed MJ or he did not. As hoax theory goes, MJ is not dead.

So how can you charge someone with manslaughter, if someone did not die?


S
April 30, 2010, 02:12:44 PM #1 Last Edit: December 31, 1969, 06:00:00 PM by Guest

I guess just if he caused any other damage... ??
It would be manslaughter with result of damage vs death...
But you can charge him with man´s laughter  :lol:


J
April 30, 2010, 02:24:10 PM #2 Last Edit: December 31, 1969, 06:00:00 PM by Guest
Quote from: "somekindofsign"

I guess just if he caused any other damage... ??
It would be manslaughter with result of damage vs death...
But you can charge him with man´s laughter  :lol:

Omg...Man's Laughter...that is hilarious!  :lol:
What you have just witnessed could be the end of a particularly terrifying nightmare. It isn't. It's the beginning.


B
April 30, 2010, 02:25:48 PM #3 Last Edit: December 31, 1969, 06:00:00 PM by Guest

I guess Murray won't be charged at all.
Because he has done nothing wrong.  ;)


S
April 30, 2010, 02:25:54 PM #4 Last Edit: December 31, 1969, 06:00:00 PM by Guest
Quote from: "jacilovesmichael"

Omg...Man's Laughter...that is hilarious!  :lol:

That came stressed on a TMZ nwes that I don´t remember now... or someone brought it...  :lol:


Q
April 30, 2010, 04:54:55 PM #5 Last Edit: December 31, 1969, 06:00:00 PM by Guest
Quote from: "brilliantinsh"

I guess Murray won't be charged at all.
Because he has done nothing wrong.  ;)

But he has been charged with manslaughter already and pleaded not guilty. You cannot even bring a charge of manslaughter if someone didn't die. Even if Murray is found not guilty, somone still had to have died. Unless of course people think that the court proceedings are not real..........that is not likely at all.

S
April 30, 2010, 04:57:25 PM #6 Last Edit: December 31, 1969, 06:00:00 PM by Guest

QuirkyDiana sorry but maybe I don´t understand the english term.
Isn´t manslaughter a synonymous from malpractice?


Q
May 01, 2010, 08:40:19 AM #7 Last Edit: December 31, 1969, 06:00:00 PM by Guest

No, in UK and American Law Manslaughter always means the killing of a human being.

Manslaughter is a legal term for the killing of a human being, in a manner considered by law as less culpable than murder.

Manslaughter is usually broken down into two distinct categories: voluntary manslaughter and involuntary manslaughter.

Murray is being tried on involuntary manslaughter - criminally negligent homicide.

In many jurisdictions such as California, malice may be found if gross negligence amounts to wilful or depraved indifference to human life. In such a case, the wrongdoer may be guilty of second degree murder.

You must understand, manslaughter in ALL cases means that the said person died. Look at the word - Man slaughter......


S
May 01, 2010, 08:52:45 AM #8 Last Edit: December 31, 1969, 06:00:00 PM by Guest

Oh Ok, so involves homicide... thank you very much QuirkyDiana!

Quote

No, in UK and American Law Manslaughter always means the killing of a human being.

In Spanish it means nothing  :lol:

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